give them a discharge in return. So that the patrons were not only deprived of their property by this Act of 1690, (that might have been quite proper and expedient,) but they never obtained the compensation which the same act provided as an atonement for the invasion of their rights. Through the dishonesty of the heritors, who refused to fulfil their part of the obligation, the patrons, who had been already deprived of their privileges, were still further defrauded of the sum which had been awarded to them by way of compensation. They lay out of their money from the year 1690 until the year 1711. In the latter year, the enactment was passed which restored to them the patronages. And on what grounds did this Act restore the patronages to those from whom they had been taken? Precisely on the ground which we have mentioned. Among other reasons, the Act specially declares that the patronages shall revert to their original owners, because they
“had not received payment or satisfaction for their right of patronage from the aforesaid heritors or liferenters of the respective parishes, nor have granted renunciation of their said right on that amount."
And in reference to those few cases in which the compensation had been paid, it deserves to be most particularly noticed, that this Act
"provides always that, in case any patron or patrons have accepted of and received any sum or sums of money from the heritors or liferenters of any parish, or from the magistrates or town-council of any borough in satisfaction of their right of presentation, and have discharged or renounced the same under their hand, that nothing herein (i. e. in this Act) shall be construed to restore such patron or patrons to their right of presentation.”
These circumstances being explained, will any one have the face to say that the Patronage Act of Queen Anne was an unjust measure,—that it was an infraction of the Treaty of Union, a violation of the British constitution? Was the Treaty of Union designed to confirm men in their dishonest practices? If it was not, then the Act of Queen Anne was a justifiable measure. Is the integrity of the British constitution compromised, so soon as it takes steps to improve the integrity of its citizens? If it is not, then the Act of Queen Anne was a constitutional and an equitable decree. Does the British constitution countenance bad faith between man and man, and encourage people to set at
