[ 15 ]
be upon an Harlot to injure her yet more for her Generoſity.
The Laws in being, have provided that no Fine can be levied upon a Wife's Eſtate, without her full and free Conſent openly declared upon that Occaſion.
Query, Would it be unreaſonable if the ſame Laws which ordained that no Fine ſhould be levied without her Conſent, ſhould determine that her Conſent ſhould alſo be neceſſary in limiting the Uſes of that Fine? The Law in requiring her Conſent to the levying the Fine, ſeems to me to imply that ſhe muſt be a Judge of the Reaſons for which it was levied.
Sometimes a Wife is wife enough to get a Deed executed firſt, declaring the Uſes of the ſubſequent Fine, which will ſecure the Money from a Miſapplication. But this is no more than a prudential Caution, which is only nor contrary to law, but is not required by it, conſequently, cannot be called Part of the Law.
By the very Nature of the Marriage Contract, the Huſband and Wife acquire a Property in each others Perſon. Our Laws give the Huſband the entire Diſpoſal of the Wife's Perſon, but ſhe does not ſeem to retain any Property in his; He may recover Damages of any Man who
